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Wednesday, 8 July 2015

Daily News Mail - News of 08/07/2015

Critically evaluate India’s progress in achieving the targets of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).
Eight aspirational goals set out in the Millenium Development Goals to be achieved in 15 years which was started in 2000. The goals are set to eradicate extreme poverty & hunger, achieve universal primary education, reduce maternal mortality and infant mortality, reduce gender disparity, combat HIV/AIDS, malaria or other diseases, environment sustainability and global partnership for development.

Almost all countries have shown remarkable effort in meeting the target. The number of people now living under extreme poverty has declined from 1.9 billion in 1990 to 830 million in 2015.

India progress on achieving MDGs:

1. India has halved the number of people under extreme poverty. However, still India is carrying the highest number of hungry people in the world. China has shown remarkable achievement in this field that has now only 4 percent people under extreme poverty, it was 61 percent in 1990.

2. Maternal mortality ratio(MMR) was 190 in 2013 but the target is to achieve 109 MMR; similarly there is also slow progress in decline of Infant mortality ratio(IMR) from 88 in 1990 to 44 in 2012. Inspite of the schemes like Janani Suraksha Yojana and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram, the result is not overwhelming.

3. The country is still struggling with diseases like HIV/AIDS, malaria or others. Although there is decline in HIV cases, but the country has third highest number of people infected with HIV.

4. Universalisation of primary education under the aegis of Sarva shiksa Abhiyaan is still not fully implemented. India has more number of school drop-outs. Many poor children is working as labourer in hotels and shops. Mid Day Mill scheme is launched to reduce drop-outs.

5. On the matter of environment, India is one of the few countries that has reduced its carbon dioxide emissions in relation to its GDP from 0.65 kg of carbon dioxide per $1 of GDP in 1990, which fell to 0.53 kg in 2010.


We have achieved 11 out of 22 MDGs target. We could have done more than that but with only 4.1% of GDP investment in public healthcare and 3.1% in education, this scenario is not going to change in the near future.
In your opinion, what should be the primary objectives of the New Development Bank being established by BRICS countries and how these objectives should be achieved? Discuss. (200 Words)Analyse the importance of Central Asian countries in India’s fight against terrorism.
BRICS countries is launching New Development Bank with initial capital of $100 billion. The objectives of the bank is to fund infrastructure and sustainable development projects in their own countries as well as others.

This bank should not follow the principle of World Bank or IMF. The groupings have major population struggling with poverty, unemployment and basic infrastructure facilities. Hence the primary objectives of the bank should be The primary objectives of the NDB should be to achieve three zeros by 2050: zero poverty, zero unemployment, and zero net carbon emissions. This could be achieved only with the investment in social business projects. The social business is not a profit-driven but mission driven business.

Financing of capitalist projects will only be profitable to money-makers. The goal of NDB must be to unleash the potential of youths and with the use of innovative technologies, we can build social business to solve complex social, economic and environment problems. Currently, India is holding the largest population of youth generation and need of the hour to mobilise them in building social business so that inequality and disparity can be minimised.
For the sustainable development of the environment, financing of eco-friendly social businesses will be more profitable to the countries instead of serving the money-making businesses. The countries should be committed to eliminate non-renewable energy and zero-tolerance against greenhouse gas emission by 2050.


By following these strategies, NDB can set example for other funding organisation. Sustainable development, good governance and eliminating social problems should center theme for the newly created NDB.
Analyse the importance of Central Asian countries in India’s fight against terrorism. (200 Words)
Terrorism has acquired a new shape with the ISIS-Taliban cobweb spreading across the world. This has rung an alarm bell for India,which has one of the largest muslim population,but has so far been effective in insulating its population form the radicalism.but with the ISIS attaining a global presence by using internet to recruit its members world across,India needs to do more to counter the terrorism.

Pakistan and Afghanistan would have otherwise acted as a buffer to India against the spread of terrorism in the West Asia,but these two countries are themselves plagued with the terrorism.in such a case,Central asian countries play a major role.

Geopolitically,these countries provide a route to the Middle East.The middle east is already on the boil with a plethora of terrorist attacks taking place there.Sharing a border with the middle east,the terrorism might easily influence central asian countries.Hence if India indulges in information-sharing of such activities in these areas and take up counter-terrorist activities here,the spread of terrorists to India can be stopped,with the Central asian countries acting as a buffer for India.

Diplomatically,India has had good relations with Central asian countries since a long time,hence futher maintaining this relation will build a confidence in the muslim population in India,which might curb spread of radicalism in our country.

Economically,these countries have huge resources,especially oil.Development of ties on the economic front with this area will develop these countries,and economic development of the masses here will further curb the spread of terrorism here,helping India indirectly. One such step is the operation of the TAPI pipeline,which will economically affect the area.


Hence,the key to prevent spreading of terrorism in India is by harnessing the good relations with the Central Asian nations.
“The National Judicial Appointments Commission gives government primacy over judiciary”. 
NJAC act was notified by government after this was passed by parliament and half of the states.
NJAC act is enacted for replacing the collegium system of appointing the judges. 
As per NJAC composition it will have
1) CJI as ex-officio chairperson
2) Law minister
3) Two other supreme court judges
4) Two eminent personalities which will be selected by a committee of Prime Minister, CJI, leader of opposition.
In India democracy is based on separation of judicial powers frome executive and legislature.
Which is seen as the basic structure of Constitution and this cannot be altered .Now if two eminent personalities are chosen by PM and leader of opposition and also there is no qualification defined for these two persoanlities which gives a chance to government to interfere in the work of NJAC. Also, there are chances the person appointed by government will be easily influenced by government. Law minister inclusion in NJAC is also seen as the same interference.So it means government has three people in NJAC , two eminent personalities and one law minister which can influence all the appointments because any two person can veto any appointment but if we see same is the case with Judges, there will be three judges as well in NJAC , CJI and two supreme court judges. So it is not a primacy for government but a sure hindrance in case they dont agree. Which is seen as interferening Judicial work.


In a diverse country like India and also as per constitution Judicial Independence is must so it will be better if Judicial independence is maintained and for that we can clearly define the eligibility for two eminent personalities and also more judges can be included in that committee so that we can be sure that there was no government primacy.
Critically comment.Critically comment on the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act and its impact on Indian women.
The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 is one of the four hindu code bills enacted during Nehru regime in1956. This act defines guardianship relation between adults and minors as well as between people of all ages and their property .
according to the law-

1 .Father is the primary guardian for legitimate son and unmarried daughter and
mother is the secondary guardian
2. Mother is primary guardian only for children of age less than five.
3. For adaptive son adaptive father is the primary guardian and mother is the secondary guardian

This kind of law only strengthen the patriarchal system of society where legally too women are considered as secondary . Indian constitution talks about equality of men and women but still in some laws like this legal discrimination is common.

In many public and private institutions like schools, banks,for employments etc. name of the father is essential which again buttress the patriarchal system of society and makes the women’s position secondary.

With the recent SC judgment allowing unwed mothers to take legal guardianship of child without fathers's consent,earlier Sc's recognition of both father and mother as legal guardian ,are steps in a positive direction.and significant for children born out of sex workers and one step for safeguarding women's right.


Now the age old Law should be amended to give equal guardianship for both mother and father so that both can be equally treated keeping in view the interest of childrenand as another step towards women empowerment.
Write a note on the working principle of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) and its importance for India’s nuclear energy program. (200 Words) 
The primary energy resource for electricity generation in India is coal which is adequate to meet the energy demand for about 50-70 years (500 GWe). The potential of other resources like gas, oil, wind, sol ar and biomass is very limited with their attendant problems The only other viable energy resource is nuclear. India has а moderate uranium reserve (50,000 t) i.e. 1-4% of world reserve and а large thorium reserve (5,00,000 t) i.e. 25% of world reserve.
Nuclear energy program in India is being implemented in three stages . Natural uranium fuelled Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors(PHWR) are in operation / under construction in the first stage . The plutonium generated from PHWR will be amplified through breeding in Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) in the second stage. This will facilitate launching of large scale Тh- U233 fuel cycle in the third stage. FBR also utilize natural uranium fuel very effectively (~75 % ) through breeding and thus provide а rapid energy growth potential (300 GWe for about 30 у) . They also constitute а clean source of power unlike fossil fuel power stations. Several operating FBR worldwide are witness to their environment friendly performance. The use of Thorium in FBR in the third stage makes it а much larger resource (1500 billion tonnes of coal equivalent) than the combined coal, oil and gas resources. Thus FBR provides long term energy security utilizing the indigenous uranium and thorium reserves .
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, Kalpakkam i s responsible for establishment of fast breeder technology in the country. 

The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam, designed and developed the technology for the PFBR. They are called breeder reactors because they breed more fuel than they consume.

Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) in Kalpakkam, an important part of the country’s three-stage nuclear power programme. In the first stage of the programme, natural uranium fuelled pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWR) produce electricity while generating plutonium-239 as by-product. the second stage, fast breeder reactors (FBRs) would use a mixed oxide (MOX) fuel made from plutonium-239, recovered by reprocessing spent fuel from the first stage, and natural uranium. A Stage III reactor or an Advanced nuclear power system involves a self-sustaining series of thorium-232-uranium-233 fuelled reactors. This would be a thermal breeder reactor, which in principle can be refueled – after its initial fuel charge – using only naturally occurring thorium.


Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) in Kalpakkam(40 km from Chennai in Tamil Nadu), an important milestone in the country’s three-stage nuclear power programme. The surplus plutonium (or uranium-233 for thorium reactors) from each fast reactor can be used to set up more such reactors and grow the nuclear capacity in tune with India's needs for power.Unlike conventional reactors that use water to transfer heat, a PFBR uses liquid sodium as coolant. The PFBR is part of the three-stage nuclear power program. The ultimate focus of the programme is on enabling the thorium reserves of India to be utilised in meeting the country's energy requirements. This is of special significance to the Indian nuclear power generation strategy as India has one of the world's largest reserves of thorium, which could provide power for more than 60,000 years
In recent years massive corruption in the competitive exams for professional courses and government conducted at both state and national level is coming into light thanks to vigilant media and courageous whistleblowers. In your opinion, what are the causes and consequences of this type of corruption? Critically discuss. (200 Words)
The recent Vyapam Scam in Madhya Pradesh has brougt to light the very real and omnipresent system of corruption in competitive exams for professional and government courses , rampant but seldom brought to light in many of the states
The spate of scams in recruitment exams conducted for government jobs (Vyapam, UP-PSC) and professional courses (All India PMT) brings to light the clear nexus between recruitment agency officials, middlemen and aspirants seeking to take the easy way out.

Driven sometimes by economic pressures or simply by preference for the quickest road to success to get a 'secure government job' or a seat at an institution, aspirants fall in the trap of corrupt officials. Who in turn see this pool of short-cut seekers as a captive market..

The various causes which can be attributed to it are:-
1. Holding in high esteem , the professional courses as compared to simple degree courses which makes them a coveted entity.
2. Expectation of high dividends and returns on completion of these courses and hence a bee-line to get into them.
3. Unjustifiable desire of parents to channel their children in such courses which presumably offer better job perspectives in a highly unemployed economy and hence no hesitation in spending/investing huge amounts of money in them.

The consequences of such scams are:-
1 . Admission of incapable students in professional streams which makes the particular chosen field hollow at its base and so leads to its deterioration at gradual levels.
2. Exclusion of capable students who fail to gain positions in such courses illegitimately and hence ttheir moral and professional discouragement.
3. Rampant growth and encouragement of corrupt officials who carry on with their malpractices.

Ministers make a plea on Sec. 8
The A. P. Government has urged President Pranab Mukherjee to ensure the enforcement of provisions under Section 8 of the AP Reorganisation Act.
  • A delegation of Ministers of the A. P. State Cabinet recently called on the President and submitted a representation on the problems faced by the Government ‘owing to the confrontationist attitude adopted by the Telangana Government’.
  • The delegation apprised Mr. Mukherjee of the alleged tapping of telephones of 120 important functionaries of the AP Government and the TDP by the Telangana Government.
What is Section 8 all about?
  • Section 8 of AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 empowers the governor to have control over administration of law and order in Hyderabad.
  • It gives the Governor in the common capital area (Hyderabad) the special responsibility for the security, life, liberty and property of all those who reside in the area.
  • The Section grants special powers to the governor to ensure security in Hyderabad, the shared capital of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, for 10 years.
  • The provisions were incorporated by the UPA government to address the concerns of people hailing from Andhra and Rayalaseema but residing in the common capital.
  • Section 8 says the governor can, after consulting the council of ministers of Telangana, use his personal judgment and take action in matters relating to law and order, including police transfers in the shared capital.
  • The police commissioners of Hyderabad, Cyberabad and the SP of the neighbouring district of Ranga Reddy are also required to furnish reports on law and order frequently to the governor.
  • The Act says the governor’s decision is final and the validity of anything he or she does cannot be called into question.
Why it is in news?
The issue has come to the fore again following the allegations of the AP government that the phones of its leaders have been illegally tapped by the Telangana police.

Kalpakkam breeder reactor to go on stream
The 500-MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam is getting ready to be commissioned in September.
  • When the reactor goes critical, it will signal India’s triumphant entry into the second stage of its three-stage nuclear power programme.
About the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR):
  • It is a 500MWe fast breeder nuclear reactor presently being constructed at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, India.
  • It will use plutonium-uranium oxide as fuel and 1,750 tonnes of liquid sodium as coolant.
  • The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) is responsible for the design of this reactor.
  • Total costs, originally estimated at 3500 crore are now estimated at 5,677 crore.
  • The PFBR is part of the three-stage nuclear power program.
  • A breeder reactor is one that breeds more material for a nuclear fission reaction than it consumes.
What is India’s 3-Phase Nuclear Power Programme?
The Indian nuclear power programme, launched in 1954, envisaged a three-stage development of nuclear power generation from the country’s uranium and thorium resources.
  • The first stage programme consists of setting up of pressurised heavy water reactors (PHWRs). PHWRs are natural uranium-fuelled, heavy water moderated and cooled. The uranium reserves in the country are adequate to support the first stage nuclear power programme of 10,000 MWe through PHWRs. In addition to generating power, PHWRs progressively make available plutonium as a by-product. The technologies for the reprocessing of plutonium from spent PHWR fuel and for fabrication of plutonium bearing fuels have been systematically established in India through research and development over the past several years.
  • The second stage of the nuclear power programme consists of effective utilisation of plutonium in Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) which will provide the key to full utilisation of the country’s uranium resources and prepare the way for the long-term utilisation of the more abundant thorium reserves. FBRs enable generation of more fresh fissile material than is consumed for power production. With the deployment of FBRs, the depleted uranium and plutonium generated in the first stage will permit an additional power potential to the extent of 3,50,000 MWe.
  • During the later part of the second stage programme, it is proposed to use thorium as blanket material in FBRs to generate U-233, another fissile material for use in the third stage programme based on U-233 fuelled reactor systems.
The 3-stages of Nuclear Power Programme are:
  • Stage-I: envisages, construction of Natural Uranium, Heavy Water Moderated and Cooled Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs). Spent fuel from these reactors is reprocessed to obtain Plutonium.
  • Stage-II: evisages, construction of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) fuelled by Plutonium produced in stage-I. These reactors would also breed U-233 from Thorium.
  • Stage-III: would comprise power reactors using U-233 / Thorium as fuel.

India on track in cutting poverty: MDG report
Recently released Millennium Development Goals (MDG) Report 2015 shows that India has halved its incidence of extreme poverty, from 49.4% in 1994 to 24.7% in 2011 ahead of the deadline of 2015 set by the United Nations.

Details of the report:
  • The report has set the limit for extreme poverty as those living on $1.25 or less a day.
  • India’s reduction in poverty is still less than that achieved by several of India’s poorer neighbors. Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh have each outstripped India in poverty reduction over comparable time periods.
  • India still remains home to one quarter of the world’s undernourished population, over a third of the world’s underweight children, and nearly a third of the world’s food-insecure people
  • The report says that India has already achieved 11 out of 22 parameters in the report—spanning issues like education, poverty, health, and education— and is on track to achieve one more by the end of 2015.
  • On the environment front, India is one of the few countries that has reduced its carbon dioxide emissions in relation to its GDP. India emitted 0.65 kg of carbon dioxide per $1 of GDP in 1990, which fell to 0.53 kg in 2010.
MDGs: What are they?

These are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, following the adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. They were set to be achieved by 2015.
  • These are time-bound and quantified targets for addressing extreme poverty in its many dimensions-income poverty, hunger, disease, lack of adequate shelter, and exclusion-while promoting gender equality, education, and environmental sustainability.
  • They are also basic human rights-the rights of each person on the planet to health, education, shelter, and security.
  • Since the adoption, there has been significant progress in many of the goals. But the progress has not been uniform. The progress differs from country to country and even within the country.
The eight millennium development goals are:
  • Eradicate Extreme Hunger and Poverty
  • Achieve Universal Primary Education
  • Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women
  • Reduce Child Mortality
  • Improve Maternal Health
  • Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and Other Diseases
  • Ensure Environmental Sustainability
  • Develop a Global Partnership for Development
  • Each goal has specific targets, and dates for achieving those targets.
Why can’t we bring you under RTI, asks SC
In a step towards making political parties publicly accountable for their financial assets, the Supreme Court recently asked six national parties, including the BJP and the Congress, to come clean and explain their hesitation in disclosing complete details of their income, expenditure, donations and funding, including donor details, to the public under the Right to Information Act.
  • The court has given the political parties six weeks to file their responses on why they should not be declared as “public authorities” under the Right to Information Act 2005, making them liable to disclose their financial assets to the public.
  • The CIC had declared all national and regional political parties to be public authorities under the RTI in its 2013 order. In March this year, it had reiterated the order as “final and binding.”
Background:
The order came based on a petition. The petition was filed by noted RTI activist Subhash Chandra Agarwal, represented by advocate Prashant Bhushan, and NGO Association for Democratic Rights (ADR).
  • The petition argues that political parties should come under the RTI as they play a core role in governance, and, in fact, enjoy a “stronghold” over their elected MPs and MLAs under Schedule 10 of the Constitution. The Schedule makes it compulsory for MPs and MLAs to abide by the directions of their parent parties.
  • It contends that it would be within the average voter’s fundamental right to information to know the financial details of political parties.
  • the petition says that under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 all political parties must affirm their allegiance to the Constitution of India and such allegiance is made compulsory for the purpose of registration under sub-section (7) of Section 29A. Therefore, political parties so registered must furnish information to the public under the right of information under Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of India, since right of information has been held to be a part of freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
  • It also contends that the Law Commission of India in its 170th Report on ‘Reform of the Electoral Laws’ in May 1999 had recommended transparency in the functioning of political parties.
Five States seek time to roll out Food Security Act
The government will soon take a call on extending the September 30 deadline for implementation of the National Food Security Act as most States are not yet ready to roll out the programme.
  • Tamil Nadu, Jammu and Kashmir, Gujarat and Kerala have sought over a year to implement the Act while UP has asked for six months.
What the states say?
  • Tamil Nadu says that the State has a universal public distribution system and limiting priority beneficiaries under the NFSA will “open a Pandora’s box.”
  • Bihar protested the number of beneficiaries fixed for the State under the Food Security Act and said over one crore poor had been left out making it difficult to identify beneficiaries.
  • J&K sought at least a year as it was still reeling under the impact of the floods that wreaked havoc in the State last year.
  • Gujarat says that the State government was planning to connect PDS beneficiary data, NREGA card holders and Socio-Economic Caste Census statistics for which it required at least a year.
  • Kerala has also sought a year as it was having problems with computerisation.
About the National Food Security Act, 2013:
  • Also called as the Right to Food act, this act aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately two thirds of India’s 1.2 billion people.
  • It extends to the whole of India.
  • Under the provisions of this act, beneficiaries are able to purchase 5 kilograms per eligible person per month of cereals at the following prices:
  • Rice at 3 Rupees per kg
  • Wheat at 2 Rupees per kg 
  • Coarse grains (millet) at 1 rupee per kg.
Salient features:
  • 75% rural and 50% of the urban population are entitled for three years from enactment to five kg food grains per month at 3 Rupees , 2 Rupees, 1 Rupee per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains (millet), respectively.
  • The states are responsible for determining eligibility.
  • Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious “take home ration” of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months.
  • Children 6 to 14 years of age are to receive free hot meals or “take home rations”.
  • The central government will provide funds to states in case of short supplies of food grains.
  • The state government will provide a food security allowance to the beneficiaries in case of non-supply of food grains.
  • The Public Distribution System is to be reformed.
  • The eldest woman in the household, 18 years or above, is the head of the household for the issuance of the ration card.
  • There will be state- and district-level redress mechanisms and State Food Commissions will be formed for implementation and monitoring of the provisions of the Act.
  • The poorest who are covered under the Antodaya yojana will remain entitled to the 35 kg of grains allotted to them under the mentioned scheme.
  • The cost of the implementation is estimated to be $22 billion(1.25 lac crore), approximately 1.5% of GDP.
No mining, polluting units in eco-sensitive zones, says Javadekar
Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar recently held a review meeting with State Environment and Forests Ministers to review the progress of demarcation of Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESA) in the Western Ghats region.
  • He also discussed the further course of action in keeping with the recommendations of the 2013 Kasturirangan Committee report. As per the report, commercial mining and polluting industries would be strictly banned in areas identified as eco sensitive zones.
  • The environment Ministers of six States viz. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat attended the meeting.
Kasturirangan Report:
The Kasturirangan panel was set up to study the Gadgil committee report on the Western Ghats. The Gadgil panel report had faced unanimous opposition from state governments for recommending that almost three-fourth of the hills, including plantations, cultivated lands and large habitations, be turned into a restricted development zone with an over-arching authority to regulate the region superseding the elected authorities’ role.

Recommendations made:
  • Around 60,000 sq km of Western Ghats, spread across six states, should be turned into a no-go area for commercial activities like mining, thermal power plants, polluting industries and large housing plans.
  • It has suggested that 90% of the natural forests left in the Western Ghats complex – adding upto 60,000 sq km and constituting 37% of the entire hilly belt — be conserved under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) provisions of the green law. The forest area falling within the ESA would also cover 4,156 villages across the six states.
  • The panel has said, “The villages falling under ESA will be involved in decision making on the future projects. All projects will require prior-informed consent and no-objection from the gram sabha (village council) of the village.”
  • The panel has recommended that there should be a complete ban on mining activity in this zone and current mining activities should be phased out within five years, or at the time of expiry of the mining lease. It has banned development of any township or construction over the size of 20,000 sq m in the ESA zone.
  • It has not recommended a ban on hydroelectric projects in the zone, but put a regime of stricter clearances for dams and other projects.
  • The report suggests doing away with the complete moratorium on industrial and mining activity in the two Maharashtra districts of Sindhudurg and Ratnagiri. It has suggested persisting with the ban only on the area of the two districts falling within the ESA and a strict regulation in the rest.
  • The report has steered clear from demanding a strict ecological control over the Western Ghat complex requiring changes and regulations on agricultural practices the way Gadgil committee report had suggested.
Fergusson College wins heritage status
Pune’s Fergusson College has been accorded the special heritage status by the University Grants Commission (UGC). It was founded in 1885.
  • With this status comes financial assistance for its upkeep.
  • The college, with buildings of gothic architecture on its leafy, 65-acre campus, has long been regarded as a landmark educational institution in Maharashtra.
  • The college, named after James Fergusson, the then Governor of Bombay Presidency, had been moulded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, R.G. Bhandarkar and M.G. Ranade.
  • The alumni include two Prime Ministers, theatre and film artists and writers.
  • The college is among the 19 institutions in the country to get the heritage status.
  • The idea of granting the heritage tags was mooted by the Centre in 2013 to enable the universities to receive financial grants worth Rs 8-10 crore per annum from the government for the improvement and upgradation of their respective campuses and other academic disciplines.

Economics - Inflation and Business Cycle

1. Consider the following statements.
  1. An extremely low aggregate demand.
  2. Comparatively lower inflation.
  3. Production houses go for forced labour cut in order to reduce production cost.
Which of the following stage of Business cycle best represents the above characteristics?
  1. Recession
  2. Recovery
  3. Depression
  4. Boom
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
The major traits of depression could be as given below:
(a) An extremely low aggregate demand in the economy causes activities to decelerate;
(b) The inflation being comparatively lower;
(c) The employment avenues start shrinking forcing unemployment rate to grow fast;
(d) To keep the business going, production houses go for forced labour-cuts or retrenchment (to cut down the production cost and be competitive in the market) etc.
Recession Vs Depression:
Recession is somewhat similar to the phase of ‘depression’ – we may call it a mild form of
depression – fatal for economies as this may lead to depression if not handled with care and in time.
When a downturn in the GDP lasts for at least six months of time, it is termed as recession.
When the GDP drops by more than 10 percent, it results in depression.

2. Which of the following government actions can be used as remedy for the “recession”
phase of the business cycle?
  1. Cut in the direct and indirect taxes.
  2. Slashing interest rate and liberalizing the lending procedures.
  3. Upward revision of salaries and wages.
Select the correct code from below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (4)
Explanation:
What may a government do to rescue the economy from the phase of recession? The usual
remedies are given below:
(i) Direct and indirect taxes should be cut down, so that the consumers have higher disposable incomes (income after paying direct tax i.e. income tax) on the one hand and the goods should become cheaper on the other hand thus there is hope that the demand might pick up.
(ii) The burden of direct tax, specially the income tax, divdend tax, interest tax are slashed to
enhance the disposable income (i.e income after direct tax payment)—
(iii) Salaries and wages should be revised by the government to encourage general spending by the consumers (as the Government of India implemented the recommendations of the fifth pay commission without much deliberation in 1996–97).
(iv) Indirect taxes such as custom duty, excise duty (cenvat), sales tax, etc. should be cut down so that produced goods reach the market at cheaper prices.
(v) The government usually goes on to follow a cheap money supply policy by slashing down the interest rates across the board and the lending procedure is also liberalised.
(vi) Tax breaks are announced for new investments in the productive areas. etc.

3. Consider the following statements with regards to inflation indexed bonds (IIBs).
  1. IIBs will provide inflation protection to principal only.
  2. Existing tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs.
  3. Foreign institutional investors (FIIs) are not allowed to invest in IIBs.
Which of the above statements are NOT correct?
  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) were issued in the name of Capital Indexed Bonds (CIBs) during 1997. The CIBs issued in 1997 provided inflation protection only to principal and not to interest payment. IIBs will provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.
Tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.
IIBs would be Government securities (G-Sec) and the different classes of investors eligible to invest in G-Secs would also be eligible to invest in IIBs. FIIs would be eligible to invest in the IIBs but subject to the overall cap for their investment in G-Secs (currently USD 25 billion).

For more details:
https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=91

4. Which of the following step/s may result in inflation?
  1. Increase in the repo rate.
  2. Increase in the indirect taxation rate.
  3. Proper maintenance of buffer stock of major agricultural products.
  4. Decrease in the crude oil production.
Select the correct code from below.
  1. 2, 3 and 4 only.
  2. 4 only.
  3. 2 and 4 only.
  4. 1 and 3 only.
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
Inflation is a sustained rise in overall price levels.
Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks. In the event of
inflation, central banks increase repo rate as this acts as a disincentive for banks to borrow from the central bank. This ultimately reduces the money supply in the economy and thus helps in arresting inflation.
Introduction of increased taxes is one of the fiscal policies to control inflation. But sometimes
this may result in cost-push inflation, as increased indirect tax rate increases cost of
production.
Maintenance of buffer stock of major agricultural products could be used in supply
management which maintains price stability.
Decrease in crude oil production increases crude oil price, which in turn increases cost of
production.


5. Consider the following statements regarding Producer Price Index (PPI).
  1. PPI gives an idea of consumer prices in the future.
  2. In PPI only basic prices and taxes are used while trade margins and transport cost are excluded.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (1)
Explanation:
The PPI measures price changes from the perspective of the producer while the cosumer price index (CPI) measures it from the consumers’ perspective. As the producers sell at higher prices to their wholesellers, so retailers and the price increase is translated into the higher consumer prices—thus the PPI is useful in having an idea of the consumer prices in the future.
In PPI, only basic prices are used while taxes, trade margins and transport costs are excluded.
This index is considered a better measure of inflation as price changes at primary and
intermediate stages can be tracked before it gets built into the finished goods stage.
The proposal of switching over to the PPI (from the WPI) came up from the Government by
mid-2003. A working Group was set up in mid-2003–04 under the chairmanship of Prof. Abhijit Sen, Member, Planning Commission to fulfill the twin tasks of:
I. Revising the current series of the WPI (i.e. base 1993–94) and
II. Recommending a producer price index (PPI) for India which could replace the WPI.

6. Inflation has multidimensional effects on the economy. Which of the following is/are
correct regarding the effects of inflation?
  1. Lenders suffers and borrowers benefit out of inflation.
  2. In the short run, investment in the economy is boosted.
  3. Burden of tax payer is increased as they are forced to pay increased taxes.
Select the correct code from below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All the above
Ans: (4)
Explanation:
There are multi-dimensional effects of inflation on an economy both at the micro and macro
levels. It redistributes income; distorts relative prices; destabilises employment, tax, saving and investment policies and finally it may bring in recession and depression in an economy.
I. On Creditors and Debtors
Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors i.e. lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation. The opposite effect takes place when inflation falls (i.e. deflation).
II. on Investment
Investment in the economy is boosted by the inflation (in the short-run) because of two
reasons:
a. Higher inflation indicates higher demand and suggests enterpreneurs to expand their
production level, and
b. Higher the inflation, lower the cost of loan
III. on Tax
Tax-payers suffer while paying their direct and indirect taxes. As indirect taxes are imposed ad valorem (on value), increased prices of goods make tax-payers to pay increased indirect taxes. Similarly, due to inflation, direct tax (income tax, interest tax, etc.) burden of the tax-payers also increases as tax-payer’s gross income moves to the upward slabs of official tax brackets (but the real value of money does not increase due to inflation; in fact, it falls).

7. Consider the following statements regarding “core inflation”.
  1. Core inflation is an indicator of long-term trend in the inflation.
  2. While calculating core inflation transitory price changes are excluded.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4.  Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
Core inflation is the non food manufacturing inflation. Core inflation shows price rise in all
goods and services excluding energy and food articles.
In India, it was first time used in the financial year 2000–01. This was criticized by experts on account of excluding food articles and energy out of the inflation and feeling satisfied on the inflation front. Basically, in the western economies, food and energy are not the problems for the masses, while in India these two segments play the most vital role for them.
For more details:

8. WPI and CPI are two important indices for measuring inflation. But there are substantial
differences between the two. Which of the following statements is/are true bout the
difference between CPI and WPI?
  1. WPI measures inflation at wholesale market, while CPI measure at retail level.
  2. WPI is more or less same throughout the country but CPI vary across the region.
Select the correct code from below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
WPI measures inflation at wholesale market, while CPI measure at retail level. Besides, the way two indices are calculated differs, both in terms of weightage assigned to products as well as the kind of items included in the baskets of products.
Wholesale prices are more or less same throughout the country but Consumer prices vary
across the regions(rural and urban) and also across the cities according to the consumer
preference for certain products, supplies and purchasing power.

9. “Inflationary gap” refers to
  1. Difference between CPI and WPI inflation.
  2. The excess of total government spending above the national income.
  3. The shortfall in total spending of the government.
  4. None of the above.
Ans: (2)
Explanation:
The excess of total government spending above the national income (i.e. fiscal deficit) is
known as the inflationary gap. This is intended to increase the production level which
ultimately pushes the prices up due to extra-creation of money during the process.
The shortfall in total spending of the government (i.e. fiscal surplus) over the national income creates deflationary gap in the economy. This is a situation of producing more than the demand and the economy usually heads for a general slowdown in the level of demand. This is also known as the output gap.

10. New CPI series with base year 2010 are available for five major groups. For which of those five groups CPI-Rural index is not calculated?
  1. Food, beverages and tobacco
  2. Fuel and light
  3. Housing
  4. Clothing, bedding and footwear
Ans: (3)
Explanation:
New CPI indices are available for five major groups namely Food, beverages and tobacco; Fuel and light; Housing; Clothing, bedding and footwear, and Miscellaneous.
House rent index is compiled only for CPI (Urban). This index is not compiled for rural sector because of two reasons: first there is negligible number of rented dwellings in the rural areas; and the Consumer Expenditure Survey also does not provide estimate of imputed rent for owner occupied houses for this sector.

India Year Book and Current Affairs

11. Consider the following regarding ‘Telegraphy’
  1. The first telegraph came in the form of Optical telegraph.
  2. In India, it became available for public use in 1854.
  3. Continuous wave is used in wireless telegraphy
Select the correct code
  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Solution- 4
Explanation:
Wireless telegraphy is still used widely today by amateur radio hobbyists where it is commonly referred to as radio telegraphy, continuous wave, or just CW.
Telegraph services in India date back to 1850, when the first experimental telegraph line was established between Calcutta and Diamond Harbour. The British East India Company started using the telegraph a year later, and by 1854—when the system opened to the public— telegraph lines had been laid across the country. The telegraph continued to thrive, in India and around the world, even after Alexander Graham Bell patented the telephone in 1876. For more than half a century, telegrams were sent over cable lines, but in 1902 (capitalizing on the work of Italian inventor Guglielmo Marconi) the Indian system went wireless.
The first telegraphs came in the form of optical telegraph, including the use of smoke
signals, beacons or reflected light, which have existed since ancient times.

12. ‘Project Arrow’ is associated with
  1. Department of Post
  2. Maritime exercise between France and India
  3. DRDO project
  4. A scientific research project under CSIR
Solution- 1
Explanation:
‘Project Arrow, an initiative to transform Department of Posts into a vibrant and responsive
organization and to make a visible and positive difference to quality and efficiency of service to the customers, was conceived in April 2008.

13. Consider the following statements regarding Post Office Saving Banks in India
  1. The Department of Posts operates Small Savings on behalf of Ministry of Rural Development
  2. Post office saving banks do not offer ATM services
  3. The Post Office Savings Bank operates Savings Account, Recurring Deposit (RD) and Time Deposit (TD) apart from other services.
Select the correct code
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Solution- 3
Explanation: Comes under Ministry of Finance and offers ATM services as well

14. Consider the following
  1. The territorial sea is regarded as the sovereign territory of the state, although foreign ships (both military and civilian) are allowed innocent passage.
  2. The difference between the territorial sea and the exclusive economic zone is that the first confers full sovereignty over the waters, whereas the second is merely a "sovereign right" which refers to the coastal state's rights below the surface of the sea.
  3. The EEZ is 188 nautical miles from Territorial waters and includes contiguous zone.
Select the correct code
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. Only 1
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Solution- 4
Explanation:
From Base line
Territorial waters- 12 Nautical Miles
Contiguous zone- 24 Nautical Miles
EEZ- 200 Nautical Miles
From Territorial Waters- EEZ will be 188 Nautical Miles an includes Contiguous Zones 
Territorial waters are also called Territorial sea.

15. Consider the following
  1. Preservation and protection of Maritime Environment
  2. Collection of Scientific Data
  3. Protection and assistance to fishermen at sea
Which of the above includes the functions of Indian Coast Guard?
  1. 1 and 3
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. Only 3
Solution- 3
Explanation:
Functions of Coast Guard as per Coast Guard Act 1978
(1) Safety and protection of artificial islands and offshore terminals installations and devices in Maritime Zones.
(2) Protection and assistance to fishermen at sea while in distress.
(3) Preservation and protection of marine environment.
(4) Prevention and control of marine pollution.
(5) Assistance to customs and other authorities in anti-smuggling operations.
(6) Enforcing of enactments being in force in the maritime zones.
(7) Other matters, including measures for the safety of life and property at sea and collection of scientific data.

16. India successfully launched its first subsonic cruise missile named ‘Nirbhay’. Consider the following w.r.t it
  1. Sub-sonic cruise missiles are able to fly at very low altitudes, close to the earth, without being detected
  2. Nirbhay blasts off like a rocket, but then unlike a missile, it turns into an aircraft.
  3. Like other ballistic missiles Nirbhay also has wings and pronounced tail fins.
Select the correct codes
  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Solution- 3
Explanation:
Nirbhaya has wings and pronounced tail fins unlike other ballistic missiles. So third statement is wrong.

17. Consider the following about ‘Guru Poornima’
  1. It is an Indian festival celebrated by Hindus, Jains and Buddhists
  2. The first full moon after Summer Solstice is known as Guru Poornima.
  3. Lord Shiva, the first yoga practitioner (Adi Yogi) is said to have begun imparting the knowledge of yoga to the rest of mankind on this day and became the first guru (Adi Guru).
Select the correct codes
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Solution- 4
Explanation:

18. The terms ‘Pushkaram’ and ‘Amrapali’ are related with
  1. Bharatnatyam
  2. Kuchipuddi
  3. Kathakali
  4. Odissi
Solution- 2
Explanation:

Tuesday, 7 July 2015

Geography

Geography - Mineral & Climate

1. Heat waves was in news recently which killed more than 2,500 people in the year 2015 till June.
Consider the following statements regarding heat waves
  1. Heat wave’s adverse impact occurred mainly in Northern and Eastern region of India.
  2. Severe heat waves come under National Calamity just like cold waves.
  3. IMD recommended to declare a region as severeheat waves affected region if temperature reached beyond 45 degree Celsius.
  4. It is a natural calamity found in tropical regions and not in temperate regions.
Choose the correct statement/s from the code
  1. 1, 3 only
  2. 2, 3, 4 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 only
  4. All the above
Answer: 1
Explanation: Heatwaves impacted mainly in northern states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Eastern states like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana.
Central government has declared cold waves, tsunamis etc as National Calamity but not heat waves.
Thus recently after the heat waves took toll of many lives country wide, there was a demand from experts as well as many states for heat waves to be declared as National Calamity.
Heat waves are the phenomenon found not only in tropical regions but also in temperate regions.
Example: UK experienced the severe heat waves in 2013.

2. During monsoon season the ITCZ (inter tropical convergence zone) shifts almost upto 25 degree North latitude over the Indian subcontinent while it rarely crosses 15 degree North latitude in other regions. This is because
  1. Vast landmass of Eurasia located to the North of the Equator.
  2. Intense low pressure over the Northwestern region of Indian subcontinent and over the vast, high altitude Tibetan plateau pulls ITCZ Northwards.
  3. Shifting of Westerly jet streams to the North of Tibetan plateau at the end of the month of May.
Choose the correct code from the following
  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All of the above.
Answer: 4
Explanation:Inter tropical convergence zone is termed as a thermal equator and is the zone where the Northeast and Southeast trade winds meet. This ITCZ shifts Northwards upto 25 degree North latitude during the months of June-July. This is facilitated by all the above points mentioned.
Westerly jet streams: These shifts southward during winters because of the southern shift of entire pressure belts by some 10 degree latitudes which is in turn because of Southern shift of Sun towards Tropic of Capricorn during winters. These jet streams because of vast Tibetan plateau,get bifurcated into 2 parts, with one part traversing south of Himalyan mountains and the other to the north of Tibetan plateau. With the advent of summers and gradual shift of Sun towards Tropic of Cancer, the part of the jet streams to the South of Himalayas gets weakened. At the end of the month of May the Westerly jet
streams completely shifts to the North of Himalayas and thus becomes stronger over the Central China and also Japan. This Northern shift facilitates the Northward shift of ITCZ.

3. The frequency of the cyclones is lower in Arabian sea when compared to Bay of Bengal. This is because
  1. Arabian sea surface temperature is higher compared to that of Bay of Bengal.
  2. Bay of Bengal receives the remnants of the typhoons originated in Northwestern Pacific ocean.
  3. Arabian sea receives the remnants of cyclones from Bay of Bengal.
Choose the correct code from the following
  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.
Answer: 3
Explanation:Bay of Bengal being a closed and a smaller water body, it has higher surface temperature compared to Arabian sea.
North Western region of Pacific ocean has the highest proportion of global tropical cyclones. These cyclones which originate in the Pacific ocean start moving towards south western direction and finally reach Bay of Bengal. But by the time they reach, they almost lose their energy and only remnants of cyclones reach Bay of Bengal. Similarly the cyclones originated in Bay of Bengal reach Arabian sea but only remnants of cyclones after shedding their energy while traversing over the peninsular landmass.

4. Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclones which is one of the important determining factor for the success of Indian monsoons.
  1. These are termed as the heat engines, which derive their energy from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets/drops.
  2. More than 50% of the energy derived is utilized to sustain the wind movement around the central eye.
  3. A mature cyclone releases energy equivalent to that of 100 hydrogen bombs.
Which of the following statements are NOT true
  1. 1, 2only.
  2. 1, 3only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of the above.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
The energy is derived from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets and of this only meager 3% is utilized for sustaining the wind movemnents.

5. Snow line is a line above which no vegetation grows on high altitude mountains because of permanent snow cover. This snow line is higher for Eastern Himalayas compared to that of Western Himalayas. What are the reasons?
Consider the following statements
  1. Eastern Himalayas are near to the Equator.
  2. Western Himalayas are more continental in their location thus has lesser maritime influence.
  3. Southwest monsoon winds have the moderating effect on the Western Himalayas.
Choose the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Snowline is a function of altitude and latitude. Higher is the latitude and altitude lower is the snowline. 

Eastern Himalaya’s altitude as well as latitudinal location is lower compared to Western Himalayas. 
Due to higher altitude as well as latitude the temperature is much less in the Western Himalaya and as a consequence the snowline in the Western Himalaya is at a lower altitude than in the Eastern Himalaya.
Southwest monsoon winds bring more rainfall to Eastern Himalayas than compared to Western Himalayas. Thus monsoon winds can have moderating effect on Eastern Himalayas and in turn increasing the altitude of snowline. Thus 3rd statement is wrong.

6. Coal bed methane is released during coal mining and is generally recommended to extract it rather than letting it evaporate into the atmosphere when untapped because
  1. CBM if is not extracted can cause fire hazards while mining deep areas.
  2. CBM if allowed to escape into atmosphere, will get converted into carbon monoxide which is a potent green house gas.
Which of the statements is/are the correct reason/s?
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Neither 1 nor 2.
  4. Both 1 and 2.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
CBM doesn’t cause any as such fire hazards if left unextracted.
CBM once extracted and used as a source of energy it will be less harmful to environment because the burning of CBM releases majorly carbon dioxide. But if it is not extracted it will escape into atmosphere and get converted into carbon monoxide which is more potent green house gas than carbon dioxide.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the production and reserves of copper in India.
  1. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of copper and is also the highest producer of copper in India.
  2. India is self sufficient in copper production and also at times it has also exported copper to countries like Japan, South Korea etc.
  3. Production of copper is a tedious job especially in India as the copper ore found in India as it is of the lower grade compared to International grade of the ore.
Which are the correct statements?
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only.
Answer: 4
Explanation:

Rajasthan although has the highest reserves, it is not the highest producer. Madhya Pradesh is the highest producer currently.
The production of copper in India always falls short of demand and thus we import copper from countries like US, Japan, Canada etc.
Third statement is true because in India the metal content in the ore is quite low compared to international average. The metal content is less than 1% in India while the international average stands at 2.5%.

8. Consider the following statements regarding biogas which is a very important source of energy in rural areas.
  1. Biogas has a higher thermal efficiency compared to charcoal, cow dung, kerosene.
  2. Not only biogas serves as a source of energy in the form of fuel but also can be used as manure for farm crops.
  3. It is slightly less environment friendly as it releases green house gases when burnt as a fuel.
Choose the incorrect code from the following
  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. None of the above.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Biogas typically refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. Biogas can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste or food waste. High levels of methane are produced when such wastes is stored under anaerobic conditions. During storage and when manure has been applied to the land, nitrous oxide is also produced as a byproduct of the denitrification process. Nitrous oxide (N2O) is 320 times more aggressive than carbon dioxide and methane 21 times more than carbon dioxide. Thus biogas production negates all these harmful gases and thus it is a environment friendly gas.

9. Consider the following statements which describe the properties of a particular metal
  1. It as a valuable metal of which the major ore is Wolfram.
  2. It is self hardening which it imparts to the steel when alloyed with the steel.
  3. Steel when alloyed with this metal, is used in manufacturing of ammunitions, armour plates,heavy guns etc.
  4. Its alloys are heat resistant, corrosion resistant and hardfacing.
Choose the correct metal from the options
1. Tungsten.
2. Chromium.
3. Copper.
4. Titanium.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Tungsten is a dull silver-colored metal with the highest melting point of any pure metal.
Also known as wolfram, from which the element takes its symbol, W, tungsten is more resistant to fracturing than diamond and is much harder than steel. It is the refractory metal's unique properties - its strength and ability to withstand high temperatures - that make it ideal for many commercial and industrial applications.

10. Consider the following statements regarding the atomic minerals.
  1. Uranium occurs both in the earth’s crust as well as sea water.
  2. India has one of the richest reserves of thorium in the world.
  3. US has the highest reserves of uranium in the world.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.
Answer: 2
Explanation:Australia has the highest reserves of uranium and not the US.

India Year Book(Land and the People/National Symbols) and Current Affairs

11. To bring prosperity and tranquility in north-eastern region of India what actions or plans you think is/are good from given below
  1.  Shift from voluminous crops to high value horticulture crops.
  2.  More strict laws to counter insurgency.
  3.  Policy to give boost to bamboo based handicraft industries.
  4.  Laying down of rail tracks to increase connectivity among north-eastern cities.
Select the correct code
  1. 2, 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. All of the above
  4. None
SOLUTION: 2
Explanation:
North-east region has rough terrain so possibility of laying down tracks wouldn’t be nice idea to execute.
It has been established by facts in history that peace was brought by negotiation rather strict laws. Strict laws have yielded an atmosphere of animosity.

12. What are the important commercial crops produced in Malabar region from given below:
  1.  Coffee and tea
  2.  Tobacco
  3.  Betelnut
  4.  Rubber
  5.  Cashewnut
Select the correct code

  1. 1, 2, 3 only
  2. 1, 3. 5 only
  3. All of the above
  4. 1, 3, 4, 5 only
Answer: 4
Explanation: Tobacco is mainly produced in Guntur and Prakasham district of Andhra

Pradesh and Kheda district of Gujrat.
Malabar regionMalabar region is an area of southern India lying between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea. It included the northern half of the state of Kerala and some coastal regions of present-day Karnataka.


13. According to world biogeographic classification. India represents which two major realms
  1.  Palearctic and Indo-Malayan
  2.  Palearctic and Neo-arctic
  3.  Neo-arctic and Indo-Malayan
Select the correct code
  1. Only 1
  2. 1 and 2
  3. Only 3
  4. None
Answer: 1
Realm: An area on the earth's surface marked by certain properties.

14. Consider the statements below:
  1. Central tribal belt is dominated by Proto-Australoid racial strain.
  2. Hills of southern India is inhabited by tribal of Negritoes racial strain.
  3. Negritoes racial strain is confined to islands of Andaman and Nicobar only.
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 1, 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None
SOLUTION: 1

15. National symbols hold a revered position among Indians. It is/was maintained and protected by
  1.  Non-statutory instructions
  2.  Statutes
  3.  Constitutional references
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 2, 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above
SOLUTION:4
Explanation:
Fundamental duties say about paying respect to national symbols. There are various legislation pieces like the flag code of India 2002 which were legislated to seek compliance to standards from citizens.

16. “Give It Up” campaign will have positive impact on
  1. Health of rural India.
  2. Environment.
  3. Revenue of Local bodies.
  4. Comforts of rural women.
Select the correct code
  1. 1 only
  2. 1, 3 only
  3. 1, 2, 4 only
  4. All of the above
SOLUTION: 3

17. Major initiatives envisaged to make ‘Digital India” campaign a success include
  1. Communication infrastructure and services
  2. Products like digital lockers, e-sign and e-hospital/ORS etc.
  3. Portals and apps
  4. Opening of research institutions
  5. Important Policies initiatives.
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2, 3 only
  2. 1, 2. 3. 5 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above
Solution: 4

18. Union cabinet proposed amendment to the Prevention of corruption act 1988. Proposed
amendments include
  1. Punishment for both bribe giver and bribe taker.
  2. Enhances punishment terms.
  3. Non-monetary gratification is covered in the definition of gratification in the PCA 1988.
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 1, 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above
SOLUTION:4

19. Socio-demographic changes at source that are result of rural to urban migration in India.
  1. Low sex-ratio.
  2. Population pyramid will shrink at its base in years to come.
  3. Feminization of workforce.
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 2, 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All of the above
SOLUTION: 4
Explanation: Rural to urban migration mainly constitutes of male so sex ratio goes down. Even migration brings down fertility rate so in future population pyramid will shrink. Because rural to urban migration majorly takes place among men and hence feminization of workforce (since rural workforce in agriculture will be more of women due to migration).

20. Recently ISRO PSLV-C23 placed satellites of foreign countries, these countries include
  1. France
  2. Germany
  3. Italy
  4. Malaysia
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 1, 3 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 only
  4. All of the above
Solution: 1
Explanation: Countries include France, Germany, Singapore and Canada.

21. Recently launched Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) platform will give boost to the concept of

  1. Cooperative federalism
  2. Good Governance
  3. Gender inclusiveness

Select the correct code

  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 2, 3 only
  3. 1, 3 only
  4. All of the above

Solution: 1
Explanation: http://www.dnaindia.com/india/report-pm-modi-launches-pragati-platform-for-redressal-of-grievances-2071960

22. Consider the statements regarding mitochondrial Donation Technique:
  1. It involves addition of healthy mitochondria from donor women to an egg from other women with defective mitochondria.
  2. This technique prevents new born babies from heart failure and blindness only.
  3. There are two different procedures used in mitochondrial donation technique –(a) Maternal Spindle Transfer (b) Pronuclear Transfer technique
Select the correct code
  1. 1 only
  2. 1, 2 only
  3. 1, 3 only
  4. All of the above
Solution: 3
Explanation: It prevents new born babies from brain damage, muscle wasting, heart failure and blindness due to defective mitochondria.

23. Recently a cyclonic storm named Ashobaa was in news. Consider the statements
  1. It was developed over east central Bay of Bengal.
  2. It was named by Srilanka as there is a system of naming storms developed in Northern India Ocean On rotational basis..
  3. It caused flood in eastern Oman.

Select the correct code
  1. 2 only
  2. 1, 2 only
  3. 2, 3 only
  4. All of the above
Solution: 3
Explanation:
It was developed over east central Arabian Sea

24. Consider the statements
  1. Cryogenic engine provides more thrust with each kg of propellant it uses.
  2. Cryogenic engine uses liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen at very low temperature
  3. Engine need low mass flow rate of both oxidizer and fuel to avoid explosion in combustion chamber.
Select the correct code
  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 1, 2 only
  3. 2, 3 only
  4. All of the above
Solution: 2
Engine need high mass flow rate of both oxidizer and fuel to generate a sufficient thrust. Independent regulators are there to check thrust control.

25. Consider the following statements with reference to hot and cold water
  1. Cold water freezes faster than hot water
  2. This phenomenon or effect is know as Mpemba Effect.
Select the correct code
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. None
Solution: None
Explanation: 
Hot water seems to freeze faster than cold water, known as the Mpemba effect. The effect was named after the Tanzanian student who in 1963 noticed that hot ice cream mix freezes faster than a cold one.  The effect was first observed by Aristotle in the 4th century BC, 


Daily News Mail - News of 07/07/2015

Prime Minister’s Visit to Central Asia
Prime Minister on 6th July left for Central Asian tour encompassing 6 countries i.e. Central Asia (Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan) and Russia. During this tour India will touch upon wide array of issues such as culture, security, natural resources and connectivity. Along with bilateral visits are the multilateral summits of BRICS and SCO at Ufa in Russia.

India considers Central Asia as its extended neighborhood, but geographical barriers makes them appear remote than any other country of the world. India as we know has been blocked by Pakistan and China. It depends solely on Iran for any connectivity. There have been sustained negotiations from last few decades’ connectivity and energy supplies, but so far India has not received even a meagre return on Investment. Region’s politics is extremely complex for India. It needs a pragmatic and dynamic personality in seat to break ice with Central Asian leader and that’s what Indian PM will be focusing on. In past, P.V. N. Rao, A.B. Vajpayee and M.M. Singh visited central Asian countries, but it made little difference. It was only J. Nehru who visited all 5 central countries in one visit in 1955 and he had exemplary understanding of culture of the region.



Till partition British India had regional (in turn cultural) contiguity with Central Asia, but after about 70 years of minimal contacts, that land appears alien. Central Asians on the other hand have strong nostalgic feeling about India which they still refer to as Hind or Hindustan. People to people contacts are minimal. These countries are having very strict visa regimes so tourism is almost nonexistent. India enjoys ample goodwill of Central Asians. But China with its deep pockets and accessibility has left little space for India. Economies of these countries almost wholly depend upon China and Russia.

China has developed unique understanding with these nations under which it extends loan meant for developing oil and gas sector of a particular Central Asian country and in repayment of that loan China is supplied Oil and Gas for decades. This is a win-win situation as it provides market for Oil and gas exploration companies of China, while it also takes care of its energy starved economy. On Indian side TAPI project is being negotiated, but its success depends upon Pakistan’s cooperation which is unlikely.

Connectivity for trade is another big problem. Current Imports from Central Asia moves all the way to Xinjiang, then to Shanghai and finally arrives at Mumbai, opposite route for exports. Currently trade with Russia happens through St. Petersburg. It’s absurd that trade with our ‘extended neighborhood’ takes longer time and costs than that with any other region of the world. So, India is investing heavily in Chabahar port of Iran which will be extended to Afghanistan through Delaram- Zaranj highway. International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is also being developed. This will be multimodal (sea, road, rail) corridor Linking India (Mumbai), Iran, Central Asia, Russia and Europe.

It should be noted that India’s connectivity with Central Asia depends solely with Iran. Otherwise proactive current government has so far not given any significant impetus to India- Iran relations. It remains to be seen that what transpires after settlement of nuclear deal with Iran.

Security angle to this visit is of utmost importance. New global threat of ISIS has influenced Central Asia significantly as thousands are participating in conflict on IS’s side. Further, almost every threat to Indian establishment in history has emerged from Central Asia. Stability in Afghanistan is crucial for stability of world and depends much upon Central Asia. This is even truer when Americans are leaving and there is political immaturity and vacuum in Afghanistan.

If history tell us anything, it is that cultural and people to people links are much decisive than financial links. India is poised to loose dollar to dollar contention with China, but culturally people are relatively close to India. It was seen in recent electoral outcomes in Sri Lanka that people resent excess economic dependence on or alignment with a powerful country like China. Public was suspicious about Rajapaksa government’s over reliance on China, so they removed him through ballot. In contrast, if cultural links are established, then government is bypassed and this is an indestructible link.

Chinese ex-FM to be AIIB chief
China has named its former Finance Minister, Jin Liqun, as its choice to head the Beijing-backed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), which is being seen as a rival to the U.S. and Europe-dominated banking institutions.
  • Former Finance Minister Jin Liqun has been formally nominated by China as its preferred candidate to head the $100 billion AIIB. He is currently the secretary-general of the interim multilateral secretariat for establishing AIIB.
Why he was chosen?
Since, China has 26.06% share of the votes in AIIB it gives China veto power over the choice of the president, which requires a 75% majority.

What about the vice-president?
India by virtue of being the second largest shareholder may get the post of vice-president.

India mulling proposal to join Eurasian Union
India is considering the option of signing a pact with the EEU, which has Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Armenia as members, and will see the inclusion of Tajikistan later this year.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s ongoing visit to Russia and five Central Asian nations could expedite the feasibility studies under way to assess whether India should sign a free trade agreement (FTA) with the Eurasian Economic Union (EEU).
  • For this purpose, a joint study group, headed by a Joint Secretary in the Ministry of Commerce, has been constituted and has been mandated to study the benefits of joining the trade bloc.
  • An invitation to join the bloc was extended by Russia, and a joint statement for establishment of a joint study group between India and the EEU was signed when Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman visited Russia recently.
How India will be benefitted?
  • India has to protect investment and trade from becoming imbalanced. It also has to ensure that its goods are not discriminated against. Hence, it is best for India to gain access to all important trade blocs.
  • India is keen to enhance its ties with the Central Asian countries, which have huge oil and gas reserves and are an important link to Afghanistan.
  • It will be an opportunity for improving trade ties as well as foster relations to check the menace of growing radicalization in the region.
About Eurasian Economic Union:
  • The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic integration. It has international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union.
  • It provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor, pursues coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union.
  • The Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union are the Republic of Armenia, the Republic of Belarus, the Republic of Kazakhstan and the Russian Federation.
  • The Union was created to comprehensively upgrade, raise the competitiveness of and cooperation between the national economies, and to promote stable development in order to raise the living standards of the nations of the Member-States.
  • The Supreme Council is the Union’s supreme authority. The Heads of the Member-States form the Supreme Council.
  • The Intergovernmental Council is a Union’s body consisting of the Heads of the Member-States Governments.
  • Eurasian Economic Commission is a permanent supranational regulatory body of the Union, with its members appointed by the Council of the Commission and the Board of the Commission. The core tasks of the Commission are fostering the conditions to support the operation and development of the Union, and drafting proposals in the field of economic integration within the Union.
  • The Court of the Eurasian Economic Union is the court of justice of the Eurasian Economic Union, which ensures the uniform application of the EAEU Treaty and other Union treaties by the Union Member-States and bodies.
  • The Eurasian Economic Union has an integrated single market of 176 million people and a gross domestic product of over 4 trillion U.S. dollars (PPP).
Controversial Meiji sites get world heritage status
The UN’s cultural body recently conferred world heritage status on a number of new sites including some seen as representative of Japan’s industrial revolution, as South Korea lifted its opposition to the listing.
  • UNESCO’s World Heritage committee added 23 sites considered representative of Japan’s industrial revolution under Emperor Meiji (1868-1910) to its vaunted list.
  • The 23 Meiji period (1868-1912) sites include coalmines and shipyards that Japan says contributed to its transformation from feudalism into a successful modern economy.
  • Japan is celebrating the sites’ inclusion, which is expected to boost tourism and opens up sources of funding for preservation work.
  • Inclusion on UNESCO’s World Heritage list can bring economic benefits, because as well as being a powerful tourist draw, world heritage sites are eligible for financial assistance towards preservation.
South Korea had, in the past, opposed the application for world heritage status unless clear reference was made to the use of an estimated 60,000 labourers forced to work at seven of the sites, including the island coalmine Gunkanjima, during Japan’s 1910-1945 colonial rule over the Korean peninsula.

The period from 1868 until 1912 in Japan is called the Meiji era – after the name chosen by the young prince Mutsuhito, when he followed his father to the throne. Meiji means in Japanese ‘the enlightened rule’. During the Meiji period Japan underwent a stunning development from a medieval society to a leading economic and military power in Asia.

The BRICS countries are planning to create a currency pool under the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) and officially launch their New Development Bank (NDB) in the upcoming Ufa summit in Russia. Critically examine the intentions behind such a currency pool and its likely consequences. (200 Words)
The Contingent Reserve Arrangement(CRA) as a part of NDB and the proposed creation of currency pool under it , is being launched by BRICS nations with intentions to provide protection against global liquidity pressures and when a member nation's currency issues is adversely affected by global financial pressures .It would also provide assistance to other countries suffering from the economic volatility.The initiative and it's different aspects are summarized as below:-
Positive impacts:-
1. the proposed currency pool would reduce the dependence of BRICS nations on dollars and euros for international trade and payments thus, serving as an alternative currency to the these traditionally dominant currencies of the Western nations in the international exchange and trade markets.
2.would reduce the risks of member nations from any volatility in the international market by shielding their currencies from any severe affects and allowing mutual trade to go unabated without mutual payments into dollars and euro .
3.The CRA will serve as buffer to overcome short-term liquidity pressure and meet unexpected risks or balance of payment burdens.
4. will facilitate currency swap among member countries and insulation to local economy and banks in the event of impositions of sanctions and financial embargoes .

Negative aspects or grey areas:-
1. dollar and euro are still the two most tradeable currencies in the international exchange market for trade and payments .It will be hard to challenge their dominance and promote any other currency as alternative .
2. The benefit of the currency pool under CRA would be limited to the trade and payments within the BRICS members only.Most of the BRICS members have far more trades in terms of volume and amount with non-BRICS nations than among themselves . 
However, the existing supremacy of the U.S. dollar, the new currency order likely to be set by CRA may not necessarily be a full alternative but it is sure a welcome beginning in that direction.

Critically analyse the way national education policy in India has evolved since independence, its changing objectives and various challenges it is facing since then. (200 Words)
India’s education policy since Independence got initiated with the University Education Commission [1950], Secondary Education Commission [1952] and the Education Commission [1964]. 
- The National Policy on Education [NPE, 1968] marked a turning point with focus on equal opportunity in education for national and economic integration.
- The 42nd CA Act, 1972 shifted Education to Concurrent List setting the stage for further reforms.
- Thereafter, NPE, 1986 provided for a national curriculum, "child-centered approach" in primary education & inclusive opportunity for women, SCs & STs and higher education reforms
- 86th CA Act, 2002 made Education a Fundamental Right under Article 21-A, and imbibed it in Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties. 
- In 2009 the Right to Education Act increased enrolment and propelled primary
education

Yet, despite huge efforts, the education policy faces following challenges, among others:
- Huge rate of drop outs in primary and elementary education
- Weak teaching faculty coupled with training facilities, outdated curriculum and poor infrastructure
- Exam oriented with focus on rote-learning system
- Poor employability of graduates 
- Wide disparities across socio-religious groups, genders and regions

The New Education Policy should tackle these challenges head-on and focus extensively on ACCESS, EQUITY and QUALITY, instead of propagating the same technocratic orientation.

It was recently reported that the International Labour Organisation (ILO) is opposed to India’s labour reform measures. Write a critical note on these measures and examine why ILO is opposing to them.
Recently, a slew of measures that have been proposed by the Indian government in order to reform labour laws in the country ,have come under the criticism of several trade unions including the International Labour Organisations(ILO) .Some of these measures along with the positive and negative aspects of these proposed amendments are summarized as below:-
Positive aspects:-
1.a single online compliance portal providing for self-certification, would simplify procedures and complexity of filling compliance with the labor laws ,reducing the number of forms from 16 earlier to just 1,providing more business and investment friendly environment .
2. extending the liability for ensuring the safety of an instrument used in the factory to the designer of that instrument and mandating shelters and restrooms .
3.setting up universal account numbers (UAN) for Provident Fund holders UAN would mean portability of accounts of EPF subscriber,allowing them to transfer or register their accounts to any EPF available.
Negative aspects :-
1. Among the many amendments proposed to the Factories Act of 1948, one proposes to exempt units that employ 20 workers (instead of the present 10) if there is electricity and 40 workers (instead of the present 20) if there is no electricity, from the purview of the factories law. These numbers were set long ago. Apparently, if these amendments were passed, some 50% of the factories would no longer come under the purview of the factories law. 
2. a single online compliance window that ends surprise inspections by labor inspectors and in which a computerised lottery system will decide which factory is to be inspected might reduce compliance scrutiny and checks on industries. 
3.might lead to rampant and abrupt firing of laborers by industries. 
All these negative aspects are some of the concerns raised by the ILO and trade unions.